Year 3: Endocrine and Metabolic Pathology

50 clinical MCQs in Endocrine and Metabolic Pathology. Which antibody directly causes hyperthyroidism in Graves' disease?. Kenya, Africa and global revi...

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. Which antibody directly causes hyperthyroidism in Graves' disease?

    Answer: TSH receptor-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI)

    Explanation: TSI binds and continuously activates TSH receptors causing unregulated thyroid hormone production. Unique features: exophthalmos and pretibial myxedema. ---

  2. Q2. Hashimoto's thyroiditis histologic hallmark is

    Answer: Dense lymphocytic infiltration with germinal centers and Hürthle cell change

    Explanation: Lymphoplasmacytic infiltration + Hürthle cell metaplasia. Anti-TPO antibodies elevated. Most common cause of hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient regions. ---

  3. Q3. A painful thyroid following flu-like illness with transient hyperthyroidism and granulomatous histology is

    Answer: De Quervain's (subacute granulomatous) thyroiditis

    Explanation: De Quervain's follows viral infection. Course: hyperthyroidism → hypothyroidism → recovery. ESR markedly elevated. ---

  4. Q4. The most common thyroid cancer with Orphan Annie eye nuclei, nuclear grooves, and psammoma bodies is

    Answer: Papillary carcinoma

    Explanation: ~80% of thyroid cancers. Spreads via lymphatics. Associated with RET/PTC rearrangements and prior radiation exposure. ---

  5. Q5. Medullary thyroid carcinoma arises from parafollicular C cells and characteristically shows

    Answer: Amyloid deposits in stroma derived from procalcitonin

    Explanation: C cells produce calcitonin. Associated with MEN2A and MEN2B via RET mutations. Calcitonin = tumor marker. ---

  6. Q6. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid is distinguished from follicular adenoma by

    Answer: Capsular and vascular invasion on histology

    Explanation: FNA cannot distinguish the two. Only capsular penetration or vascular invasion on excised specimen confirms carcinoma. Spreads hematogenously to bone and lung. ---

  7. Q7. Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is best described as

    Answer: One of the most lethal human cancers with median survival of months

    Explanation: Undifferentiated, typically in elderly. Rapid local invasion. Does not take up radioiodine. Near 100% mortality. ---

  8. Q8. A midline neck swelling that moves with BOTH swallowing and tongue protrusion is

    Answer: Thyroglossal duct cyst

    Explanation: Connected to base of tongue via fibrous tract through hyoid bone. Most common congenital neck mass. ---

  9. Q9. The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is

    Answer: Solitary parathyroid adenoma

    Explanation: ~85% of cases. Classic: Bones, Stones, Groans, Psychic moans. PTH elevated + hypercalcemia + hypophosphatemia. ---

  10. Q10. Secondary hyperparathyroidism most commonly results from

    Answer: Chronic renal failure causing hypocalcemia

    Explanation: CRF → decreased vitamin D activation + hyperphosphatemia → hypocalcemia → compensatory four-gland hyperplasia. Calcium is low/normal, not elevated. ---

  11. Q11. Brown tumors of bone are caused by

    Answer: Prolonged severe hyperparathyroidism

    Explanation: Collections of osteoclasts, macrophages, and hemosiderin replacing bone. X-ray: "salt and pepper" skull + subperiosteal resorption of radial aspect of middle phalanges. ---

  12. Q12. Trousseau's sign for hypocalcemia involves

    Answer: Carpopedal spasm on inflating BP cuff above systolic for 3 minutes

    Explanation: More sensitive and specific than Chvostek's. Carpal spasm (main d'accoucheur). Most common cause of hypoparathyroidism = inadvertent surgical removal. ---

  13. Q13. The most common OVERALL cause of Cushing's syndrome is

    Answer: Exogenous corticosteroid administration

    Explanation: Iatrogenic = most common overall. Among endogenous causes, Cushing's disease (pituitary adenoma) = ~70%. Features: central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, purple striae. ---

  14. Q14. In Cushing's disease (pituitary adenoma), cortisol on dexamethasone suppression testing is

    Answer: Not suppressed by low dose but IS suppressed by high dose

    Explanation: Pituitary adenoma retains partial feedback sensitivity. Ectopic ACTH and adrenal tumors = unsuppressed by either dose. Key distinguishing test. ---

  15. Q15. Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) presents with hypertension, hypokalemia, and

    Answer: Low plasma renin (suppressed)

    Explanation: Autonomous aldosterone → Na retention + K wasting + volume expansion → suppresses renin. Low renin distinguishes primary from secondary hyperaldosteronism. ---

  16. Q16. The most common cause of Addison's disease in developed countries is

    Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis

    Explanation: Autoimmune = most common in developed world. TB = most common worldwide. 90% of cortex must be destroyed before symptoms appear. Features: hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypotension. ---

  17. Q17. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is bilateral adrenal hemorrhage typically caused by

    Answer: Neisseria meningitidis septicemia

    Explanation: Meningococcal septicemia → DIC → bilateral adrenal hemorrhage → acute adrenal crisis + purpuric rash + shock. Fulminant, often fatal. ---

  18. Q18. Pheochromocytoma rule of 10s: 10% bilateral, 10% malignant, 10% extra-adrenal. Which else is correct?

    Answer: 10% occur in children and 10% are familial

    Explanation: Catecholamine-secreting tumor causing paroxysmal hypertension, headache, palpitations, sweating. Associated with MEN2A/2B, VHL, NF1. Diagnose with 24hr urine metanephrines. ---

  19. Q19. The most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is

    Answer: 21-hydroxylase deficiency

    Explanation: ~95% of CAH. Blocks cortisol and aldosterone synthesis → precursors shunted to androgens. Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone is the diagnostic marker. ---

  20. Q20. Neuroblastoma, the most common extracranial solid tumor of childhood, arises from

    Answer: Adrenal medulla / sympathetic ganglia

    Explanation: Neural crest-derived. Secretes catecholamines → elevated urinary VMA and HVA. N-myc amplification = poor prognosis. ---

  21. Q21. Excess growth hormone after epiphyseal fusion causes acromegaly. Before fusion it causes

    Answer: Gigantism

    Explanation: Pre-fusion GH excess = gigantism. Post-fusion = acromegaly: enlarged hands/feet, prognathism, coarse features, organomegaly. IGF-1 is the best screening test. ---

  22. Q22. Sheehan's syndrome is postpartum pituitary necrosis. Its first clinical sign is

    Answer: Failure of lactation followed by panhypopituitarism

    Explanation: Massive postpartum hemorrhage → ischemic necrosis of enlarged pituitary. First sign: failure to lactate (prolactin deficiency). Later: loss of all anterior pituitary hormones. ---

  23. Q23. Craniopharyngioma arises from Rathke's pouch remnants. Its characteristic imaging finding is

    Answer: Calcification on CT

    Explanation: Calcification almost pathognomonic on CT. Most common suprasellar tumor in children. Causes bitemporal hemianopia, hypopituitarism, diabetes insipidus. Benign but locally destructive. ---

  24. Q24. The most common functional pituitary adenoma is

    Answer: Prolactinoma

    Explanation: Women: galactorrhea, amenorrhea, infertility. Men: hypogonadism, erectile dysfunction. First-line treatment: dopamine agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline) — NOT surgery. ---

  25. Q25. Central diabetes insipidus is distinguished from nephrogenic DI by

    Answer: Response to desmopressin (ADH analogue)

    Explanation: Water deprivation then desmopressin: central DI responds (urine concentrates). Nephrogenic DI = no response (renal resistance to ADH). ---

  26. Q26. Type 1 DM is caused by autoimmune beta cell destruction. HLA associations include

    Answer: HLA-DR3 and DR4

    Explanation: Anti-islet cell, anti-insulin, and anti-GAD antibodies present. Absolute insulin deficiency → prone to DKA. Islets show insulitis (lymphocytic infiltration). ---

  27. Q27. The pathologic hallmark of Type 2 DM in the pancreas is

    Answer: Islet amyloid (amylin/IAPP) deposition

    Explanation: IAPP/amylin co-secreted with insulin deposits as amyloid replacing beta cells. Pathogenesis: insulin resistance + relative insulin deficiency. Associated with obesity. ---

  28. Q28. Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomonic of

    Answer: Diabetic nephropathy

    Explanation: Early: GBM thickening + mesangial expansion. Advanced: diffuse + nodular (Kimmelstiel-Wilson) glomerulosclerosis. Leading cause of ESRD worldwide. ---

  29. Q29. DKA occurs in Type 1 DM due to absolute insulin deficiency causing

    Answer: Uncontrolled lipolysis, ketogenesis, and high anion gap metabolic acidosis

    Explanation: Insulin deficiency → unrestrained glucagon → massive lipolysis → hepatic ketogenesis. Results in HAGMA + dehydration + Kussmaul breathing + fruity breath. ---

  30. Q30. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over

    Answer: 2–3 months (lifespan of RBC)

    Explanation: HbA1c ≥6.5% = diagnostic of DM. Target in treatment <7%. Falsely low in haemolytic anaemia. Gold standard for monitoring glycaemic control. ---

  31. Q31. The 'glove and stocking' sensory neuropathy of diabetes is primarily caused by

    Answer: Non-enzymatic glycation + polyol pathway causing osmotic nerve damage

    Explanation: Sorbitol accumulates via aldose reductase → osmotic damage to Schwann cells. Most common diabetic complication. Risk of painless foot ulcers and Charcot joint. ---

  32. Q32. Monosodium urate crystals in gout appear under polarized light as

    Answer: Needle-shaped and negatively birefringent

    Explanation: MSU = needle-shaped, negatively birefringent (yellow when parallel to slow axis). First MTP joint (podagra) is classic. Causes: overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid. ---

  33. Q33. Pseudogout (CPPD) crystals are

    Answer: Rhomboid-shaped and weakly positively birefringent

    Explanation: CPPD = rhomboid, weakly positively birefringent (blue when parallel to slow axis). Chondrocalcinosis on X-ray. Commonly affects knee in elderly. Associated with hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis. ---

  34. Q34. Wilson's disease is caused by ATP7B mutations leading to

    Answer: Defective copper transport and copper accumulation in liver, brain, and eyes

    Explanation: Autosomal recessive. Copper accumulates in liver (cirrhosis), basal ganglia, eyes (Kayser-Fleischer rings), kidneys. Serum ceruloplasmin LOW. Treatment: D-penicillamine or trientine. ---

  35. Q35. Kayser-Fleischer rings in Wilson's disease represent

    Answer: Copper deposition in Descemet's membrane of the cornea

    Explanation: Golden-brown rings at corneal periphery. Best seen on slit-lamp. Pathognomonic of Wilson's with neurologic involvement. Present in 95% with neurologic disease. ---

  36. Q36. Primary (AL) amyloidosis is associated with

    Answer: Plasma cell dyscrasias (multiple myeloma)

    Explanation: AL = immunoglobulin light chains from clonal plasma cells. Affects heart (restrictive cardiomyopathy), kidneys (nephrotic syndrome), liver, tongue (macroglossia). ---

  37. Q37. Secondary (AA) amyloidosis complicates

    Answer: Chronic inflammatory diseases (TB, RA, osteomyelitis)

    Explanation: AA = serum amyloid A protein elevated in chronic inflammation. Kidneys and liver primarily affected. Also complicates familial Mediterranean fever. ---

  38. Q38. Metabolic syndrome diagnosis requires at least 3 of 5 criteria. These are

    Answer: Central obesity, hypertension, elevated triglycerides, low HDL, elevated fasting glucose

    Explanation: Greatly increases CV risk and T2DM risk. Associated with NAFLD, PCOS, sleep apnoea. ---

  39. Q39. MEN1 (Wermer syndrome) classically involves the '3 Ps'

    Answer: Pituitary, parathyroid, and pancreas

    Explanation: MEN1 gene (menin) mutation. Parathyroid hyperplasia (~95%), Pancreatic NETs (gastrinoma most common), Pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma most common). ---

  40. Q40. MEN2A (Sipple syndrome) includes

    Answer: Medullary thyroid Ca + pheochromocytoma + parathyroid hyperplasia

    Explanation: RET mutations. MTC (~100%) + pheo (~50%) + parathyroid (~20%). MEN2B = same minus parathyroid PLUS mucosal neuromas + marfanoid habitus. ---

  41. Q41. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is caused by a gastrinoma presenting with

    Answer: Multiple recurrent peptic ulcers in unusual locations due to hypergastrinemia

    Explanation: Pancreatic/duodenal gastrinoma → massive acid hypersecretion → ulcers including 4th duodenum and jejunum. ~25% associated with MEN1. ---

  42. Q42. Whipple's triad for insulinoma consists of

    Answer: Symptoms of hypoglycaemia + documented low blood glucose + relief with glucose

    Explanation: Most common pancreatic NET, 90% benign. Suppressed C-peptide during hypoglycaemia if exogenous insulin; elevated C-peptide in insulinoma. ---

  43. Q43. Carcinoid syndrome (flushing, diarrhea, right heart disease) occurs when carcinoid tumors

    Answer: Metastasize to the liver, bypassing hepatic inactivation of serotonin

    Explanation: Hepatic portal blood inactivates serotonin — symptoms only occur with liver metastases (or primary lung carcinoids). Diagnosis: 24hr urine 5-HIAA. ---

  44. Q44. Primary hemochromatosis is caused by mutations in

    Answer: HFE gene causing excessive iron absorption

    Explanation: C282Y most common mutation. Iron deposits in liver (cirrhosis), pancreas (diabetes), heart (cardiomyopathy), skin (bronze pigmentation). Treatment: phlebotomy. ---

  45. Q45. 'Bronze diabetes' is the classic triad of hemochromatosis consisting of

    Answer: Skin bronzing + diabetes mellitus + cirrhosis

    Explanation: Iron deposition in skin (bronze pigmentation) + pancreatic beta cells (DM) + liver (cirrhosis). Increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. Also: arthropathy, hypogonadism, cardiomyopathy. ---

  46. Q46. Amyloid shows apple-green birefringence on Congo red staining due to its

    Answer: Cross-beta pleated sheet fibril arrangement

    Explanation: All amyloids share cross-beta pleated sheet configuration regardless of precursor protein. EM shows non-branching 7–10nm fibrils. Amyloid P component (SAP) present in all types. ---

  47. Q47. The adrenal cortex zones GFR produce respectively (outer to inner)

    Answer: Aldosterone, cortisol, androgens

    Explanation: "GFR = Salt, Sugar, Sex." Glomerulosa = Aldosterone, Fasciculata = Cortisol, Reticularis = Androgens. Medulla = Catecholamines. ---

  48. Q48. Iodine deficiency goiter causes thyroid enlargement because

    Answer: Low T3/T4 → elevated TSH → drives follicular cell hyperplasia and hypertrophy

    Explanation: Most common cause of goiter worldwide = iodine deficiency. Treatment: iodine supplementation. Endemic goiter = affects 10% of a population. ---

  49. Q49. The early morning hyperglycaemia of the 'dawn phenomenon' is caused by

    Answer: Overnight surges in counter-regulatory hormones (GH and cortisol)

    Explanation: GH and cortisol increase hepatic glucose production overnight → pre-breakfast hyperglycaemia. Distinguish from Somogyi effect (nocturnal hypoglycaemia → rebound) — different mechanism and management. ---

  50. Q50. SIADH causes

    Answer: Hyponatraemia with low serum osmolality and inappropriately concentrated urine

    Explanation: Excess ADH → water retention → dilutional hyponatraemia + concentrated urine (osmolality 100 mOsm/kg). Most common ectopic cause: small cell lung cancer. Treatment: fluid restriction ± tolvaptan.

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