Year 3: Endocrine and Metabolic Pathology

50 clinical MCQs in Endocrine and Metabolic Pathology. Which antibody directly causes hyperthyroidism in Graves' disease?

Questions, Answers & Explanations

  1. Q1. Which antibody directly causes hyperthyroidism in Graves' disease?

    Answer: TSH receptor-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI)

    Explanation: TSI binds and continuously activates TSH receptors causing unregulated thyroid hormone production. Unique features: exophthalmos and pretibial myxedema.

  2. Q2. Hashimoto's thyroiditis histologic hallmark is

    Answer: Dense lymphocytic infiltration with germinal centers and Hürthle cell change

    Explanation: Lymphoplasmacytic infiltration + Hürthle cell metaplasia. Anti-TPO antibodies elevated. Most common cause of hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient regions.

  3. Q3. A painful thyroid following flu-like illness with transient hyperthyroidism and granulomatous histology is

    Answer: De Quervain's (subacute granulomatous) thyroiditis

    Explanation: De Quervain's follows viral infection. Course: hyperthyroidism → hypothyroidism → recovery. ESR markedly elevated.

  4. Q4. The most common thyroid cancer with Orphan Annie eye nuclei, nuclear grooves, and psammoma bodies is

    Answer: Papillary carcinoma

    Explanation: ~80% of thyroid cancers. Spreads via lymphatics. Associated with RET/PTC rearrangements and prior radiation exposure.

  5. Q5. Medullary thyroid carcinoma arises from parafollicular C cells and characteristically shows

    Answer: Amyloid deposits in stroma derived from procalcitonin

    Explanation: C cells produce calcitonin. Associated with MEN2A and MEN2B via RET mutations. Calcitonin = tumor marker.

  6. Q6. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid is distinguished from follicular adenoma by

    Answer: Capsular and vascular invasion on histology

    Explanation: FNA cannot distinguish the two. Only capsular penetration or vascular invasion on excised specimen confirms carcinoma. Spreads hematogenously to bone and lung.

  7. Q7. Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is best described as

    Answer: One of the most lethal human cancers with median survival of months

    Explanation: Undifferentiated, typically in elderly. Rapid local invasion. Does not take up radioiodine. Near 100% mortality.

  8. Q8. A midline neck swelling that moves with BOTH swallowing and tongue protrusion is

    Answer: Thyroglossal duct cyst

    Explanation: Connected to base of tongue via fibrous tract through hyoid bone. Most common congenital neck mass.

  9. Q9. The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is

    Answer: Solitary parathyroid adenoma

    Explanation: ~85% of cases. Classic: Bones, Stones, Groans, Psychic moans. PTH elevated + hypercalcemia + hypophosphatemia.

  10. Q10. Secondary hyperparathyroidism most commonly results from

    Answer: Chronic renal failure causing hypocalcemia

    Explanation: CRF → decreased vitamin D activation + hyperphosphatemia → hypocalcemia → compensatory four-gland hyperplasia. Calcium is low/normal, not elevated.

  11. Q11. Brown tumors of bone are caused by

    Answer: Prolonged severe hyperparathyroidism

    Explanation: Collections of osteoclasts, macrophages, and hemosiderin replacing bone. X-ray: "salt and pepper" skull + subperiosteal resorption of radial aspect of middle phalanges.

  12. Q12. Trousseau's sign for hypocalcemia involves

    Answer: Carpopedal spasm on inflating BP cuff above systolic for 3 minutes

    Explanation: More sensitive and specific than Chvostek's. Carpal spasm (main d'accoucheur). Most common cause of hypoparathyroidism = inadvertent surgical removal.

  13. Q13. The most common OVERALL cause of Cushing's syndrome is

    Answer: Exogenous corticosteroid administration

    Explanation: Iatrogenic = most common overall. Among endogenous causes, Cushing's disease (pituitary adenoma) = ~70%. Features: central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, purple striae.

  14. Q14. In Cushing's disease (pituitary adenoma), cortisol on dexamethasone suppression testing is

    Answer: Not suppressed by low dose but IS suppressed by high dose

    Explanation: Pituitary adenoma retains partial feedback sensitivity. Ectopic ACTH and adrenal tumors = unsuppressed by either dose. Key distinguishing test.

  15. Q15. Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) presents with hypertension, hypokalemia, and

    Answer: Low plasma renin (suppressed)

    Explanation: Autonomous aldosterone → Na retention + K wasting + volume expansion → suppresses renin. Low renin distinguishes primary from secondary hyperaldosteronism.

  16. Q16. The most common cause of Addison's disease in developed countries is

    Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis

    Explanation: Autoimmune = most common in developed world. TB = most common worldwide. 90% of cortex must be destroyed before symptoms appear. Features: hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypotension.

  17. Q17. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is bilateral adrenal hemorrhage typically caused by

    Answer: Neisseria meningitidis septicemia

    Explanation: Meningococcal septicemia → DIC → bilateral adrenal hemorrhage → acute adrenal crisis + purpuric rash + shock. Fulminant, often fatal.

  18. Q18. Pheochromocytoma rule of 10s: 10% bilateral, 10% malignant, 10% extra-adrenal. Which else is correct?

    Answer: 10% occur in children and 10% are familial

    Explanation: Catecholamine-secreting tumor causing paroxysmal hypertension, headache, palpitations, sweating. Associated with MEN2A/2B, VHL, NF1. Diagnose with 24hr urine metanephrines.

  19. Q19. The most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is

    Answer: 21-hydroxylase deficiency

    Explanation: ~95% of CAH. Blocks cortisol and aldosterone synthesis → precursors shunted to androgens. Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone is the diagnostic marker.

  20. Q20. Neuroblastoma, the most common extracranial solid tumor of childhood, arises from

    Answer: Adrenal medulla / sympathetic ganglia

    Explanation: Neural crest-derived. Secretes catecholamines → elevated urinary VMA and HVA. N-myc amplification = poor prognosis.

  21. Q21. Excess growth hormone after epiphyseal fusion causes acromegaly. Before fusion it causes

    Answer: Gigantism

    Explanation: Pre-fusion GH excess = gigantism. Post-fusion = acromegaly: enlarged hands/feet, prognathism, coarse features, organomegaly. IGF-1 is the best screening test.

  22. Q22. Sheehan's syndrome is postpartum pituitary necrosis. Its first clinical sign is

    Answer: Failure of lactation followed by panhypopituitarism

    Explanation: Massive postpartum hemorrhage → ischemic necrosis of enlarged pituitary. First sign: failure to lactate (prolactin deficiency). Later: loss of all anterior pituitary hormones.

  23. Q23. Craniopharyngioma arises from Rathke's pouch remnants. Its characteristic imaging finding is

    Answer: Calcification on CT

    Explanation: Calcification almost pathognomonic on CT. Most common suprasellar tumor in children. Causes bitemporal hemianopia, hypopituitarism, diabetes insipidus. Benign but locally destructive.

  24. Q24. The most common functional pituitary adenoma is

    Answer: Prolactinoma

    Explanation: Women: galactorrhea, amenorrhea, infertility. Men: hypogonadism, erectile dysfunction. First-line treatment: dopamine agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline) — NOT surgery.

  25. Q25. Central diabetes insipidus is distinguished from nephrogenic DI by

    Answer: Response to desmopressin (ADH analogue)

    Explanation: Water deprivation then desmopressin: central DI responds (urine concentrates). Nephrogenic DI = no response (renal resistance to ADH).

  26. Q26. Type 1 DM is caused by autoimmune beta cell destruction. HLA associations include

    Answer: HLA-DR3 and DR4

    Explanation: Anti-islet cell, anti-insulin, and anti-GAD antibodies present. Absolute insulin deficiency → prone to DKA. Islets show insulitis (lymphocytic infiltration).

  27. Q27. The pathologic hallmark of Type 2 DM in the pancreas is

    Answer: Islet amyloid (amylin/IAPP) deposition

    Explanation: IAPP/amylin co-secreted with insulin deposits as amyloid replacing beta cells. Pathogenesis: insulin resistance + relative insulin deficiency. Associated with obesity.

  28. Q28. Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomonic of

    Answer: Diabetic nephropathy

    Explanation: Early: GBM thickening + mesangial expansion. Advanced: diffuse + nodular (Kimmelstiel-Wilson) glomerulosclerosis. Leading cause of ESRD worldwide.

  29. Q29. DKA occurs in Type 1 DM due to absolute insulin deficiency causing

    Answer: Uncontrolled lipolysis, ketogenesis, and high anion gap metabolic acidosis

    Explanation: Insulin deficiency → unrestrained glucagon → massive lipolysis → hepatic ketogenesis. Results in HAGMA + dehydration + Kussmaul breathing + fruity breath.

  30. Q30. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over

    Answer: 2–3 months (lifespan of RBC)

    Explanation: HbA1c ≥6.5% = diagnostic of DM. Target in treatment <7%. Falsely low in haemolytic anaemia. Gold standard for monitoring glycaemic control.

  31. Q31. The 'glove and stocking' sensory neuropathy of diabetes is primarily caused by

    Answer: Non-enzymatic glycation + polyol pathway causing osmotic nerve damage

    Explanation: Sorbitol accumulates via aldose reductase → osmotic damage to Schwann cells. Most common diabetic complication. Risk of painless foot ulcers and Charcot joint.

  32. Q32. Monosodium urate crystals in gout appear under polarized light as

    Answer: Needle-shaped and negatively birefringent

    Explanation: MSU = needle-shaped, negatively birefringent (yellow when parallel to slow axis). First MTP joint (podagra) is classic. Causes: overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid.

  33. Q33. Pseudogout (CPPD) crystals are

    Answer: Rhomboid-shaped and weakly positively birefringent

    Explanation: CPPD = rhomboid, weakly positively birefringent (blue when parallel to slow axis). Chondrocalcinosis on X-ray. Commonly affects knee in elderly. Associated with hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis.

  34. Q34. Wilson's disease is caused by ATP7B mutations leading to

    Answer: Defective copper transport and copper accumulation in liver, brain, and eyes

    Explanation: Autosomal recessive. Copper accumulates in liver (cirrhosis), basal ganglia, eyes (Kayser-Fleischer rings), kidneys. Serum ceruloplasmin LOW. Treatment: D-penicillamine or trientine.

  35. Q35. Kayser-Fleischer rings in Wilson's disease represent

    Answer: Copper deposition in Descemet's membrane of the cornea

    Explanation: Golden-brown rings at corneal periphery. Best seen on slit-lamp. Pathognomonic of Wilson's with neurologic involvement. Present in 95% with neurologic disease.

  36. Q36. Primary (AL) amyloidosis is associated with

    Answer: Plasma cell dyscrasias (multiple myeloma)

    Explanation: AL = immunoglobulin light chains from clonal plasma cells. Affects heart (restrictive cardiomyopathy), kidneys (nephrotic syndrome), liver, tongue (macroglossia).

  37. Q37. Secondary (AA) amyloidosis complicates

    Answer: Chronic inflammatory diseases (TB, RA, osteomyelitis)

    Explanation: AA = serum amyloid A protein elevated in chronic inflammation. Kidneys and liver primarily affected. Also complicates familial Mediterranean fever.

  38. Q38. Metabolic syndrome diagnosis requires at least 3 of 5 criteria. These are

    Answer: Central obesity, hypertension, elevated triglycerides, low HDL, elevated fasting glucose

    Explanation: Greatly increases CV risk and T2DM risk. Associated with NAFLD, PCOS, sleep apnoea.

  39. Q39. MEN1 (Wermer syndrome) classically involves the '3 Ps':

    Answer: Pituitary, parathyroid, and pancreas

    Explanation: MEN1 gene (menin) mutation. Parathyroid hyperplasia (~95%), Pancreatic NETs (gastrinoma most common), Pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma most common).

  40. Q40. MEN2A (Sipple syndrome) includes

    Answer: Medullary thyroid Ca + pheochromocytoma + parathyroid hyperplasia

    Explanation: RET mutations. MTC (~100%) + pheo (~50%) + parathyroid (~20%). MEN2B = same minus parathyroid PLUS mucosal neuromas + marfanoid habitus.

  41. Q41. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is caused by a gastrinoma presenting with

    Answer: Multiple recurrent peptic ulcers in unusual locations due to hypergastrinemia

    Explanation: Pancreatic/duodenal gastrinoma → massive acid hypersecretion → ulcers including 4th duodenum and jejunum. ~25% associated with MEN1.

  42. Q42. Whipple's triad for insulinoma consists of

    Answer: Symptoms of hypoglycaemia + documented low blood glucose + relief with glucose

    Explanation: Most common pancreatic NET, 90% benign. Suppressed C-peptide during hypoglycaemia if exogenous insulin; elevated C-peptide in insulinoma.

  43. Q43. Carcinoid syndrome (flushing, diarrhea, right heart disease) occurs when carcinoid tumors

    Answer: Metastasize to the liver, bypassing hepatic inactivation of serotonin

    Explanation: Hepatic portal blood inactivates serotonin — symptoms only occur with liver metastases (or primary lung carcinoids). Diagnosis: 24hr urine 5-HIAA.

  44. Q44. Primary hemochromatosis is caused by mutations in

    Answer: HFE gene causing excessive iron absorption

    Explanation: C282Y most common mutation. Iron deposits in liver (cirrhosis), pancreas (diabetes), heart (cardiomyopathy), skin (bronze pigmentation). Treatment: phlebotomy.

  45. Q45. 'Bronze diabetes' is the classic triad of hemochromatosis consisting of

    Answer: Skin bronzing + diabetes mellitus + cirrhosis

    Explanation: Iron deposition in skin (bronze pigmentation) + pancreatic beta cells (DM) + liver (cirrhosis). Increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. Also: arthropathy, hypogonadism, cardiomyopathy.

  46. Q46. Amyloid shows apple-green birefringence on Congo red staining due to its

    Answer: Cross-beta pleated sheet fibril arrangement

    Explanation: All amyloids share cross-beta pleated sheet configuration regardless of precursor protein. EM shows non-branching 7–10nm fibrils. Amyloid P component (SAP) present in all types.

  47. Q47. The adrenal cortex zones GFR produce respectively (outer to inner)

    Answer: Aldosterone, cortisol, androgens

    Explanation: "GFR = Salt, Sugar, Sex." Glomerulosa = Aldosterone, Fasciculata = Cortisol, Reticularis = Androgens. Medulla = Catecholamines.

  48. Q48. Iodine deficiency goiter causes thyroid enlargement because

    Answer: Low T3/T4 → elevated TSH → drives follicular cell hyperplasia and hypertrophy

    Explanation: Most common cause of goiter worldwide = iodine deficiency. Treatment: iodine supplementation. Endemic goiter = affects 10% of a population.

  49. Q49. The early morning hyperglycaemia of the 'dawn phenomenon' is caused by

    Answer: Overnight surges in counter-regulatory hormones (GH and cortisol)

    Explanation: GH and cortisol increase hepatic glucose production overnight → pre-breakfast hyperglycaemia. Distinguish from Somogyi effect (nocturnal hypoglycaemia → rebound) — different mechanism and management.

  50. Q50. SIADH causes

    Answer: Hyponatraemia with low serum osmolality and inappropriately concentrated urine

    Explanation: Excess ADH → water retention → dilutional hyponatraemia + concentrated urine (osmolality 100 mOsm/kg). Most common ectopic cause: small cell lung cancer. Treatment: fluid restriction ± tolvaptan.

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