50 clinical MCQs in Endocrine and Metabolic Pathology. Which antibody directly causes hyperthyroidism in Graves' disease?
Q1. Which antibody directly causes hyperthyroidism in Graves' disease?
Answer: TSH receptor-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI)
Explanation: TSI binds and continuously activates TSH receptors causing unregulated thyroid hormone production. Unique features: exophthalmos and pretibial myxedema.
Q2. Hashimoto's thyroiditis histologic hallmark is
Answer: Dense lymphocytic infiltration with germinal centers and Hürthle cell change
Explanation: Lymphoplasmacytic infiltration + Hürthle cell metaplasia. Anti-TPO antibodies elevated. Most common cause of hypothyroidism in iodine-sufficient regions.
Q3. A painful thyroid following flu-like illness with transient hyperthyroidism and granulomatous histology is
Answer: De Quervain's (subacute granulomatous) thyroiditis
Explanation: De Quervain's follows viral infection. Course: hyperthyroidism → hypothyroidism → recovery. ESR markedly elevated.
Q4. The most common thyroid cancer with Orphan Annie eye nuclei, nuclear grooves, and psammoma bodies is
Answer: Papillary carcinoma
Explanation: ~80% of thyroid cancers. Spreads via lymphatics. Associated with RET/PTC rearrangements and prior radiation exposure.
Q5. Medullary thyroid carcinoma arises from parafollicular C cells and characteristically shows
Answer: Amyloid deposits in stroma derived from procalcitonin
Explanation: C cells produce calcitonin. Associated with MEN2A and MEN2B via RET mutations. Calcitonin = tumor marker.
Q6. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid is distinguished from follicular adenoma by
Answer: Capsular and vascular invasion on histology
Explanation: FNA cannot distinguish the two. Only capsular penetration or vascular invasion on excised specimen confirms carcinoma. Spreads hematogenously to bone and lung.
Q7. Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is best described as
Answer: One of the most lethal human cancers with median survival of months
Explanation: Undifferentiated, typically in elderly. Rapid local invasion. Does not take up radioiodine. Near 100% mortality.
Q8. A midline neck swelling that moves with BOTH swallowing and tongue protrusion is
Answer: Thyroglossal duct cyst
Explanation: Connected to base of tongue via fibrous tract through hyoid bone. Most common congenital neck mass.
Q9. The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is
Answer: Solitary parathyroid adenoma
Explanation: ~85% of cases. Classic: Bones, Stones, Groans, Psychic moans. PTH elevated + hypercalcemia + hypophosphatemia.
Q10. Secondary hyperparathyroidism most commonly results from
Answer: Chronic renal failure causing hypocalcemia
Explanation: CRF → decreased vitamin D activation + hyperphosphatemia → hypocalcemia → compensatory four-gland hyperplasia. Calcium is low/normal, not elevated.
Q11. Brown tumors of bone are caused by
Answer: Prolonged severe hyperparathyroidism
Explanation: Collections of osteoclasts, macrophages, and hemosiderin replacing bone. X-ray: "salt and pepper" skull + subperiosteal resorption of radial aspect of middle phalanges.
Q12. Trousseau's sign for hypocalcemia involves
Answer: Carpopedal spasm on inflating BP cuff above systolic for 3 minutes
Explanation: More sensitive and specific than Chvostek's. Carpal spasm (main d'accoucheur). Most common cause of hypoparathyroidism = inadvertent surgical removal.
Q13. The most common OVERALL cause of Cushing's syndrome is
Answer: Exogenous corticosteroid administration
Explanation: Iatrogenic = most common overall. Among endogenous causes, Cushing's disease (pituitary adenoma) = ~70%. Features: central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, purple striae.
Q14. In Cushing's disease (pituitary adenoma), cortisol on dexamethasone suppression testing is
Answer: Not suppressed by low dose but IS suppressed by high dose
Explanation: Pituitary adenoma retains partial feedback sensitivity. Ectopic ACTH and adrenal tumors = unsuppressed by either dose. Key distinguishing test.
Q15. Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) presents with hypertension, hypokalemia, and
Answer: Low plasma renin (suppressed)
Explanation: Autonomous aldosterone → Na retention + K wasting + volume expansion → suppresses renin. Low renin distinguishes primary from secondary hyperaldosteronism.
Q16. The most common cause of Addison's disease in developed countries is
Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis
Explanation: Autoimmune = most common in developed world. TB = most common worldwide. 90% of cortex must be destroyed before symptoms appear. Features: hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypotension.
Q17. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is bilateral adrenal hemorrhage typically caused by
Answer: Neisseria meningitidis septicemia
Explanation: Meningococcal septicemia → DIC → bilateral adrenal hemorrhage → acute adrenal crisis + purpuric rash + shock. Fulminant, often fatal.
Q18. Pheochromocytoma rule of 10s: 10% bilateral, 10% malignant, 10% extra-adrenal. Which else is correct?
Answer: 10% occur in children and 10% are familial
Explanation: Catecholamine-secreting tumor causing paroxysmal hypertension, headache, palpitations, sweating. Associated with MEN2A/2B, VHL, NF1. Diagnose with 24hr urine metanephrines.
Q19. The most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is
Answer: 21-hydroxylase deficiency
Explanation: ~95% of CAH. Blocks cortisol and aldosterone synthesis → precursors shunted to androgens. Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone is the diagnostic marker.
Q20. Neuroblastoma, the most common extracranial solid tumor of childhood, arises from
Answer: Adrenal medulla / sympathetic ganglia
Explanation: Neural crest-derived. Secretes catecholamines → elevated urinary VMA and HVA. N-myc amplification = poor prognosis.
Q21. Excess growth hormone after epiphyseal fusion causes acromegaly. Before fusion it causes
Answer: Gigantism
Explanation: Pre-fusion GH excess = gigantism. Post-fusion = acromegaly: enlarged hands/feet, prognathism, coarse features, organomegaly. IGF-1 is the best screening test.
Q22. Sheehan's syndrome is postpartum pituitary necrosis. Its first clinical sign is
Answer: Failure of lactation followed by panhypopituitarism
Explanation: Massive postpartum hemorrhage → ischemic necrosis of enlarged pituitary. First sign: failure to lactate (prolactin deficiency). Later: loss of all anterior pituitary hormones.
Q23. Craniopharyngioma arises from Rathke's pouch remnants. Its characteristic imaging finding is
Answer: Calcification on CT
Explanation: Calcification almost pathognomonic on CT. Most common suprasellar tumor in children. Causes bitemporal hemianopia, hypopituitarism, diabetes insipidus. Benign but locally destructive.
Q24. The most common functional pituitary adenoma is
Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation: Women: galactorrhea, amenorrhea, infertility. Men: hypogonadism, erectile dysfunction. First-line treatment: dopamine agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline) — NOT surgery.
Q25. Central diabetes insipidus is distinguished from nephrogenic DI by
Answer: Response to desmopressin (ADH analogue)
Explanation: Water deprivation then desmopressin: central DI responds (urine concentrates). Nephrogenic DI = no response (renal resistance to ADH).
Q26. Type 1 DM is caused by autoimmune beta cell destruction. HLA associations include
Answer: HLA-DR3 and DR4
Explanation: Anti-islet cell, anti-insulin, and anti-GAD antibodies present. Absolute insulin deficiency → prone to DKA. Islets show insulitis (lymphocytic infiltration).
Q27. The pathologic hallmark of Type 2 DM in the pancreas is
Answer: Islet amyloid (amylin/IAPP) deposition
Explanation: IAPP/amylin co-secreted with insulin deposits as amyloid replacing beta cells. Pathogenesis: insulin resistance + relative insulin deficiency. Associated with obesity.
Q28. Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomonic of
Answer: Diabetic nephropathy
Explanation: Early: GBM thickening + mesangial expansion. Advanced: diffuse + nodular (Kimmelstiel-Wilson) glomerulosclerosis. Leading cause of ESRD worldwide.
Q29. DKA occurs in Type 1 DM due to absolute insulin deficiency causing
Answer: Uncontrolled lipolysis, ketogenesis, and high anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation: Insulin deficiency → unrestrained glucagon → massive lipolysis → hepatic ketogenesis. Results in HAGMA + dehydration + Kussmaul breathing + fruity breath.
Q30. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over
Answer: 2–3 months (lifespan of RBC)
Explanation: HbA1c ≥6.5% = diagnostic of DM. Target in treatment <7%. Falsely low in haemolytic anaemia. Gold standard for monitoring glycaemic control.
Q31. The 'glove and stocking' sensory neuropathy of diabetes is primarily caused by
Answer: Non-enzymatic glycation + polyol pathway causing osmotic nerve damage
Explanation: Sorbitol accumulates via aldose reductase → osmotic damage to Schwann cells. Most common diabetic complication. Risk of painless foot ulcers and Charcot joint.
Q32. Monosodium urate crystals in gout appear under polarized light as
Answer: Needle-shaped and negatively birefringent
Explanation: MSU = needle-shaped, negatively birefringent (yellow when parallel to slow axis). First MTP joint (podagra) is classic. Causes: overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid.
Q33. Pseudogout (CPPD) crystals are
Answer: Rhomboid-shaped and weakly positively birefringent
Explanation: CPPD = rhomboid, weakly positively birefringent (blue when parallel to slow axis). Chondrocalcinosis on X-ray. Commonly affects knee in elderly. Associated with hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis.
Q34. Wilson's disease is caused by ATP7B mutations leading to
Answer: Defective copper transport and copper accumulation in liver, brain, and eyes
Explanation: Autosomal recessive. Copper accumulates in liver (cirrhosis), basal ganglia, eyes (Kayser-Fleischer rings), kidneys. Serum ceruloplasmin LOW. Treatment: D-penicillamine or trientine.
Q35. Kayser-Fleischer rings in Wilson's disease represent
Answer: Copper deposition in Descemet's membrane of the cornea
Explanation: Golden-brown rings at corneal periphery. Best seen on slit-lamp. Pathognomonic of Wilson's with neurologic involvement. Present in 95% with neurologic disease.
Q36. Primary (AL) amyloidosis is associated with
Answer: Plasma cell dyscrasias (multiple myeloma)
Explanation: AL = immunoglobulin light chains from clonal plasma cells. Affects heart (restrictive cardiomyopathy), kidneys (nephrotic syndrome), liver, tongue (macroglossia).
Q37. Secondary (AA) amyloidosis complicates
Answer: Chronic inflammatory diseases (TB, RA, osteomyelitis)
Explanation: AA = serum amyloid A protein elevated in chronic inflammation. Kidneys and liver primarily affected. Also complicates familial Mediterranean fever.
Q38. Metabolic syndrome diagnosis requires at least 3 of 5 criteria. These are
Answer: Central obesity, hypertension, elevated triglycerides, low HDL, elevated fasting glucose
Explanation: Greatly increases CV risk and T2DM risk. Associated with NAFLD, PCOS, sleep apnoea.
Q39. MEN1 (Wermer syndrome) classically involves the '3 Ps':
Answer: Pituitary, parathyroid, and pancreas
Explanation: MEN1 gene (menin) mutation. Parathyroid hyperplasia (~95%), Pancreatic NETs (gastrinoma most common), Pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma most common).
Q40. MEN2A (Sipple syndrome) includes
Answer: Medullary thyroid Ca + pheochromocytoma + parathyroid hyperplasia
Explanation: RET mutations. MTC (~100%) + pheo (~50%) + parathyroid (~20%). MEN2B = same minus parathyroid PLUS mucosal neuromas + marfanoid habitus.
Q41. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is caused by a gastrinoma presenting with
Answer: Multiple recurrent peptic ulcers in unusual locations due to hypergastrinemia
Explanation: Pancreatic/duodenal gastrinoma → massive acid hypersecretion → ulcers including 4th duodenum and jejunum. ~25% associated with MEN1.
Q42. Whipple's triad for insulinoma consists of
Answer: Symptoms of hypoglycaemia + documented low blood glucose + relief with glucose
Explanation: Most common pancreatic NET, 90% benign. Suppressed C-peptide during hypoglycaemia if exogenous insulin; elevated C-peptide in insulinoma.
Q43. Carcinoid syndrome (flushing, diarrhea, right heart disease) occurs when carcinoid tumors
Answer: Metastasize to the liver, bypassing hepatic inactivation of serotonin
Explanation: Hepatic portal blood inactivates serotonin — symptoms only occur with liver metastases (or primary lung carcinoids). Diagnosis: 24hr urine 5-HIAA.
Q44. Primary hemochromatosis is caused by mutations in
Answer: HFE gene causing excessive iron absorption
Explanation: C282Y most common mutation. Iron deposits in liver (cirrhosis), pancreas (diabetes), heart (cardiomyopathy), skin (bronze pigmentation). Treatment: phlebotomy.
Q45. 'Bronze diabetes' is the classic triad of hemochromatosis consisting of
Answer: Skin bronzing + diabetes mellitus + cirrhosis
Explanation: Iron deposition in skin (bronze pigmentation) + pancreatic beta cells (DM) + liver (cirrhosis). Increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma. Also: arthropathy, hypogonadism, cardiomyopathy.
Q46. Amyloid shows apple-green birefringence on Congo red staining due to its
Answer: Cross-beta pleated sheet fibril arrangement
Explanation: All amyloids share cross-beta pleated sheet configuration regardless of precursor protein. EM shows non-branching 7–10nm fibrils. Amyloid P component (SAP) present in all types.
Q47. The adrenal cortex zones GFR produce respectively (outer to inner)
Answer: Aldosterone, cortisol, androgens
Explanation: "GFR = Salt, Sugar, Sex." Glomerulosa = Aldosterone, Fasciculata = Cortisol, Reticularis = Androgens. Medulla = Catecholamines.
Q48. Iodine deficiency goiter causes thyroid enlargement because
Answer: Low T3/T4 → elevated TSH → drives follicular cell hyperplasia and hypertrophy
Explanation: Most common cause of goiter worldwide = iodine deficiency. Treatment: iodine supplementation. Endemic goiter = affects 10% of a population.
Q49. The early morning hyperglycaemia of the 'dawn phenomenon' is caused by
Answer: Overnight surges in counter-regulatory hormones (GH and cortisol)
Explanation: GH and cortisol increase hepatic glucose production overnight → pre-breakfast hyperglycaemia. Distinguish from Somogyi effect (nocturnal hypoglycaemia → rebound) — different mechanism and management.
Q50. SIADH causes
Answer: Hyponatraemia with low serum osmolality and inappropriately concentrated urine
Explanation: Excess ADH → water retention → dilutional hyponatraemia + concentrated urine (osmolality 100 mOsm/kg). Most common ectopic cause: small cell lung cancer. Treatment: fluid restriction ± tolvaptan.