Internal Medicine 4th Year Endocrinology CAT: 30 MCQs

MKU 4th Year Endocrinology CAT: 30 MCQs on diabetes, DKA and hyperosmolar states, adrenal crisis, thyroid disease, myxoedema coma and hyperparathyroidism, with answers.

Mount Kenya University · School of Medicine · Internal Medicine

Paper details

  • Paper: "4th Year Endocrinology CAT", time 1 hour, answered on a separate answer sheet. The scan has no printed date or unit code, so it is filed as undated.
  • Questions: 30 multiple choice questions.
  • Answers: written by OmpathStudy for revision. They are not the official MKU marking scheme. The student's number and the pen marks on the scan were ignored and are not published.
  • Topics tested: diabetes (type 1 and 2, drugs, DKA, hyperosmolar state, hypoglycaemia), adrenal disease and Addisonian crisis, thyroid disease and myxoedema coma, and parathyroid disease.
  • Questions that need care: Q10, Q15, Q28 and Q13 are loosely worded. The explanation says which option is best and why.

Multiple choice questions

1. Which of the following statements is correct?

  • A. Insulin suppresses the activity of glycogen synthase
  • B. Insulin mediates glucose uptake in the brain
  • C. Prediabetes is characterised by an increased risk for the future development of type 2 diabetes
  • D. The rise in insulin concentration after a meal is reduced in type 1 but not in type 2 diabetes

2. Insulin deficiency is associated with:

  • A. Reduced lipolysis
  • B. Increased ketogenesis
  • C. Reduced gluconeogenesis
  • D. Reduced proteolysis

3. The risk factors for type 2 diabetes include:

  • A. Family history
  • B. Being overweight
  • C. High intake of dietary fat
  • D. All of the above

4. The pathogenesis of hyperglycaemia in type 2 diabetes includes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT for:

  • A. Increased glucose production by the liver
  • B. Impaired insulin secretion
  • C. Decreased glucose uptake from skeletal muscle
  • D. All of the options given are correct

5. Which statement best describes the differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes?

  • A. People with type 2 usually require lower doses of insulin than people with type 1 because they have a milder form of diabetes
  • B. People with type 1 rapidly develop chronic complications
  • C. Autoimmune factors are involved in the pathogenesis of type 1 but not type 2 diabetes
  • D. People with type 1 can increase endogenous insulin production by taking oral hypoglycaemic agents

6. According to trials on diabetes prevention, high-risk individuals can reduce their risk of developing diabetes by:

  • A. Eating a very low carbohydrate diet
  • B. Consuming a diet high in monounsaturated fats
  • C. Losing 5 to 7% of body weight through a hypocaloric, low-fat diet and 30 minutes of daily activity
  • D. Initiating metformin 850 mg twice daily and practising daily vigorous exercise

7. What is the first-line drug for patients with type 2 diabetes and obesity?

  • A. Acarbose
  • B. Metformin
  • C. Sulphonylureas
  • D. Insulin

8. This diabetes drug acts by decreasing the amount of glucose produced by the liver:

  • A. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
  • B. Sulfonylureas
  • C. Biguanides
  • D. Meglitinide

9. Which is NOT a potential cause of hypoglycaemia in adults?

  • A. Alcohol
  • B. Salbutamol
  • C. Insulinoma
  • D. Salicylates
  • E. Adrenal insufficiency

10. Which is the major precipitant of DKA?

  • A. Infection
  • B. Missed doses of insulin
  • C. Acute myocardial infarction
  • D. Pancreatitis
  • E. Pulmonary embolism

11. Which is NOT true regarding the management of DKA?

  • A. Administration of IV fluid immediately on arrival is the life-saving event
  • B. Fluid replacement should be 3 to 4 litres over the first four hours in a patient who is not shocked
  • C. Even if the K+ is above 5.5, potassium replacement should be commenced
  • D. The insulin bolus should be about 0.1 units/kg, with subsequent infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr
  • E. Cerebral oedema responds to mannitol

12. Which is NOT a feature of hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic non-ketotic states?

  • A. Very high glucose, often greater than 40 mmol/L
  • B. pH above 7.3
  • C. Serum osmolality often greater than 350 mmol/L
  • D. Low bicarbonate
  • E. Lack of ketones in urine

13. Which statement is false about the fluid deficit in HHNS?

  • A. It is usually 5 L
  • B. If not shocked, then 0.45% saline should be given
  • C. Fluid replacement should always precede insulin therapy in the non-shocked patient
  • D. Fluid replacement should be done over a longer period of time than in DKA
  • E. Normal saline should be given to the shocked patient

14. Which may NOT cause an adrenal crisis?

  • A. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
  • B. Sheehan's syndrome
  • C. Acute discontinuation of steroid therapy
  • D. Anticoagulant use
  • E. Fulminant septicaemia

15. What biochemical abnormality is possible in an Addisonian crisis?

  • A. Hyponatraemia
  • B. Hypokalaemia
  • C. Hypoglycaemia
  • D. Normokalaemia and normonatraemia
  • E. All of the above

16. Which statement is incorrect regarding treatment of an Addisonian crisis?

  • A. IV normal saline should be given to treat shock
  • B. IV dextrose will also be required
  • C. IV fludrocortisone is required
  • D. IV dexamethasone or hydrocortisone should be given
  • E. Fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid) does not need to be given acutely

17. Which is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in Australia?

  • A. Graves' disease
  • B. Toxic multinodular goitre
  • C. Toxic adenoma
  • D. Pituitary aetiology
  • E. Excess iodine

18. Which is NOT a feature of hyperthyroidism?

  • A. Lid lag
  • B. Lid retraction
  • C. Amenorrhoea
  • D. Peripheral neuropathy
  • E. Hyperreflexia

19. Which is false regarding the treatment of myxoedema coma?

  • A. Thyroxine should be given IV initially
  • B. Thyroxine should be given in full dosage prior to blood results
  • C. Steroids should be given
  • D. Hyponatraemia should be treated with fluid restriction
  • E. Dextrose may be required

20. Which is NOT a feature of hypothyroidism?

  • A. Loss of outer third of the eyebrow
  • B. Bradycardia
  • C. Ophthalmopathy
  • D. Weight gain
  • E. Constipation

21. Which hormone is produced by the adrenal medulla?

22. Which best describes an Addisonian crisis?

  • A. Dangerously high testosterone levels
  • B. Severe adrenal insufficiency resulting in dangerously low testosterone levels
  • C. Dangerously high serum cortisol levels
  • D. Severe adrenal insufficiency resulting in dangerously low serum cortisol levels
  • E. None of the above

23. Which is a symptom of Addison's disease?

  • A. Striae
  • B. Moon face
  • C. Weight gain
  • D. Postural hypotension
  • E. Hypopigmentation

24. Which best describes a toxic thyroid adenoma?

  • A. Inflammation of the thyroid gland due to lymphocytic infiltration, causing stored thyroid hormones to be released into the circulation
  • B. A malignant tumour of the thyroid gland that produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones
  • C. An autoimmune disease with antibodies that stimulate the TSH receptors, causing increased T3 and T4
  • D. A benign tumour of the thyroid gland that produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones, arising from follicular cells
  • E. None of the above

25. Which is NOT a cause of Addison's disease?

  • A. Adrenoleukodystrophy
  • B. Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex
  • C. Tuberculosis
  • D. Pyelonephritis
  • E. All of the above

26. Which statement is NOT true of parathyroid hormone?

  • A. Increases renal phosphate excretion in the renal tubule
  • B. Decreases phosphate excretion in the renal tubule
  • C. Increases renal calcium resorption
  • D. Promotes osteoclastic resorption of calcium
  • E. None of the above

27. Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterised by all of the following EXCEPT:

  • A. Hypocalcaemia
  • B. Hypercalcaemia
  • C. Hypercalciuria
  • D. Hyperphosphaturia
  • E. Recurrent renal infection

28. All the following are causes of primary hypothyroidism EXCEPT:

  • A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
  • B. Subacute thyroiditis
  • C. Hypopituitarism
  • D. Graves' disease
  • E. Lithium

29. All the following are true concerning Hashimoto's thyroiditis EXCEPT:

  • A. Hürthle cells are a likely feature
  • B. Female to male distribution is 1:1
  • C. May result in thyroid lymphoma, but rarely
  • D. Usually presents with goitre
  • E. The patient may be euthyroid

30. All the following are true concerning toxic adenomas EXCEPT:

  • A. Low TSH
  • B. More common in a young female
  • C. Are almost always follicular adenomas
  • D. A hot nodule may be seen on thyroid scan
  • E. None of the above

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