Internal Medicine Rheumatology CAT: 30 MCQs and 5 short answer questions

MKU Internal Medicine Rheumatology CAT: 30 MCQs on rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, gout, osteoporosis and vasculitis, plus short questions on CREST, myositis and fibromyalgia, with answers.

Mount Kenya University · School of Medicine · Internal Medicine

Paper details

  • Paper: "Rheumatology CAT", time 2 hours. The scan has no printed date or unit code, so it is filed as undated.
  • Questions: 30 multiple choice questions and 5 short answer questions (5 marks each).
  • Answers: written by OmpathStudy for revision. They are not the official MKU marking scheme. The pen marks on the scan were ignored.
  • Topics tested: rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, CREST and systemic sclerosis, myositis, vasculitis, gout and pseudogout, osteoporosis and fibromyalgia.
  • Questions that need care: Q2, Q10, Q15 and Q22 are loosely worded. The explanation says which option is best and why.

Section A: Multiple choice questions

1. Which of the following is the most common area affected by rheumatoid arthritis?

  • A. Temporomandibular joint
  • B. Metatarsophalangeal joint
  • C. Metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints
  • D. Wrist joint

2. Which of the following is NOT associated with a poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?

  • A. Large number of involved joints
  • B. HLA-DRB102 / HLA-DRB103 alleles
  • C. Extra-articular manifestations
  • D. High serum titre of autoantibodies (rheumatoid factor, anti-CCP)

3. Regarding extra-articular disease, which organ system is more likely to be affected by rheumatoid arthritis?

  • A. Urinary system
  • B. Digestive system
  • C. Cardiovascular system
  • D. Lymphatic system

4. Which is the first choice for imaging in rheumatoid arthritis?

  • A. CT scan
  • B. MRI
  • C. Ultrasonography
  • D. Radiography

6. What are the early signs and symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis?

  • A. Joint pain, tenderness, redness and swelling
  • B. Loss of joint range of movement
  • C. Limping
  • D. All of the above

7. Rheumatoid arthritis differs from some other forms of arthritis because it:

  • A. Is more painful than other forms
  • B. Occurs below the waist
  • C. Is symmetrical, affecting the right and left side of the body
  • D. Generally occurs above the waist

8. Rheumatology is the branch of medicine that involves the study of:

  • A. The immune system
  • B. The musculoskeletal system (muscle and bone)
  • C. Rheumatic disease
  • D. All of the above

9. The sudden appearance or worsening of RA symptoms is called a:

  • A. Outbreak
  • B. Flare
  • C. Burst
  • D. Eruption

10. The term arthritis refers to:

  • A. Stiffness in a joint
  • B. Inflammation of the joints
  • C. Both (a) and (b)
  • D. None of the above

11. Rheumatoid arthritis is more severe in:

  • A. Men
  • B. Women
  • C. Both (a) and (b)
  • D. None of the above

12. People with rheumatoid arthritis experience the most stiffness at night.

  • A. True
  • B. False

13. Rheumatoid arthritis can be treated by:

  • A. Medication
  • B. Exercise
  • C. Surgery
  • D. All of the above

14. Which test cannot be used to aid diagnosis or monitor progression of rheumatoid arthritis?

  • A. ESR
  • B. RF test
  • C. Anti-CCP
  • D. Heterophile antibody

15. The cause of rheumatoid arthritis is:

  • A. Heterophile antibodies
  • B. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
  • C. IgM
  • D. IgG

16. Which is NOT a criterion for remission in RA by the ACR/EULAR 2011 criteria?

  • A. C-reactive protein of 1 mg/dL or less
  • B. Swollen joint count of 1 or less
  • C. Tender joint count of 1 or less
  • D. Physician global assessment of 1 or less

17. A 45-year-old woman has widespread joint pains worse after a stressful day, puffy hands and feet, a painful neck and poor concentration. Rheumatoid factor is mildly positive. BMI is raised and movement is restricted by pain, with no synovitis. Which investigation is most useful?

  • A. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody
  • B. Ultrasound of hands and feet
  • C. Anti-Jo-1 antibody
  • D. ESR and C-reactive protein
  • E. Anti-mitochondrial antibody

18. Which drug is most likely to cause a systemic lupus-like syndrome?

  • A. Baclofen
  • B. Isoniazid
  • C. Methotrexate
  • D. Procainamide
  • E. Sulfasalazine

19. A 25-year-old woman has a baby with complete heart block that needs a pacemaker. Which maternal antibody is most likely?

  • A. Anti-double-stranded DNA
  • B. Anti-endomysial
  • C. Anti-Ro/SSA
  • D. Anti-Scl-70
  • E. Rheumatoid factor

20. Which of the following is a pro-inflammatory cytokine?

  • A. CRP
  • B. Interleukin 4
  • C. IL-10
  • D. Serum amyloid precursor protein
  • E. Tumour necrosis factor-alpha

21. A 72-year-old man has an acutely painful hot right knee, temperature 37°C, WBC 12.6 × 10⁹/L, an X-ray showing reduced joint space and calcification of the articular cartilage, and aspirate culture with no growth. Most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Gout
  • B. Psoriatic monoarthropathy
  • C. Pseudogout
  • D. Rheumatoid arthritis
  • E. Septic arthritis

22. Which statement about infliximab is most true?

  • A. It is a monoclonal antibody to the glycoprotein IIb-IIIa receptor
  • B. It is authorised for severe ulcerative colitis
  • C. It is licensed for the treatment of RA
  • D. It prevents relapse of Crohn's disease in patients in remission
  • E. It must not be used with methotrexate because of toxicity

23. A 25-year-old woman with SLE has nephrotic syndrome. Biopsy shows diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (WHO class IV). Which regimen would you advise?

  • A. Azathioprine alone
  • B. Prednisolone alone
  • C. Azathioprine and prednisolone
  • D. Prednisolone and intravenous cyclophosphamide
  • E. Prednisolone and methotrexate

24. Which autoantibody may have a role in monitoring disease activity?

  • A. Rheumatoid factor in RA
  • B. Antinuclear antibody in SLE
  • C. Anti-Sm in SLE
  • D. Anti-dsDNA in SLE
  • E. Anti-Ro in Sjögren's syndrome

25. A 69-year-old woman on hydralazine for hypertension has joint pain and chest pain with a pericardial rub. Diagnosis?

  • A. Dermatomyositis
  • B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (drug-induced)
  • C. Polymyalgia rheumatica
  • D. Felty syndrome

26. Which drug class has been shown to halt or reverse the progression of RA in most patients?

  • A. Aspirin
  • B. Azathioprine
  • C. Everolimus
  • D. Methotrexate
  • E. Prednisone

27. Which statement about allopurinol is correct?

  • A. It increases glomerular filtration of uric acid
  • B. It reduces tubular reabsorption of uric acid
  • C. It inhibits the conversion of xanthine to uric acid
  • D. It is indicated in a 37-year-old with uric acid 0.42 mmol/L and one attack of gout
  • E. It is associated with aplastic anaemia in 1% of cases

28. Alendronate has been proven effective in randomised trials in which condition?

  • A. Osteomalacia
  • B. Bony metastases
  • C. Algodystrophy
  • D. Postmenopausal osteoporosis
  • E. Hypercalciuria

29. A 33-year-old woman has a malar rash worse with sun, myalgia, pleural effusion, pericarditis and arthralgia without deformity over 7 years, with haematuria and no drug history. Best screening test?

  • A. Antinuclear antibody
  • B. Anti-dsDNA
  • C. Anti-RNP antibody
  • D. Anti-histone antibody

30. A 40-year-old woman with asthma for 4 years has a 2-month history of asymmetric neuropathy in the right arm and both legs, palpable purpura on the legs and eosinophilia. Likely diagnosis?

  • A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • B. Polyarteritis nodosa
  • C. Giant cell arteritis
  • D. Churg-Strauss syndrome

Section B: Short answer questions (5 marks each)

1. What is CREST syndrome?

2. Typical changes expected in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis (5 marks)

3. List the features of systemic lupus erythematosus (5 marks)

4. Difference between polymyositis and dermatomyositis (5 marks)

5. Features of fibromyalgia (5 marks)

Model answers are on the page for subscribers.

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Compiled by Abongo Davis · Ompath Study · shared for MBChB students at Mount Kenya University and other universities.